Facepowders For Sale

In Casablanca, is it correct that the Germans would've been prevented from acting against their enemies?

It's not clear in Casablanca whether the Nazis actually control the city or not. There are some references to 'neutrality' in the movie, which are plainly intended to make us understand why Laszlo could not be touched, but is this historically accurate? That early in the war, would the Nazis have had to careful not to overstep their boundaries? I've seen this called a historical mistake in the film and I'm wondering if that's the case.

Casablanca was set in WWII Morocco. It was part of Vichy France and was by that definition part of a neutral country. France had pulled out of WWII after their defeat May and June of 1940.

Germany had great influence on Vichy France to say the least. After D-Day, Vichy France was dissolved and Germany took over the entire country. Actually it was after Operation Anvil, that was the invasion of Southern France that the Germans did this.

But, officially, Americans and Brits in Casablanca would have been subject to surveillance but not arrest as an enemy national.

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